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Exam Code: SD0-401
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Foundation Qualification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.
B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.
B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BCP-520
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The following is a sample of which type of log file? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Session Manager (BBSM)
B. BlackBerry MVS SIP (BBSIP)
C. BlackBerry MVS Call Detail Record (CDR)
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher (DISP)
E. BlackBerry Router (ROUT)
Answer: A

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NO.2 For BlackBerry devices that operate on GSM networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which BlackBerry MVS Session Manager configuration setting is required in order for BlackBerry
device-initiated calling to work? (Choose one.)
A. Configure a unique SIP IP address
B. Configure BlackBerry MVS for High Availability
C. Add a unique DID/DDI number to each BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Add a unique BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector Caller Identification Number
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three processes make use of the SIP Trunk? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Client registration
B. Mobile Call initiation using voice over mobile
C. Mid-call features such as transfer and hold
D. BlackBerry device-initiated call authentication
E. Wi-Fi profile authentication
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should
the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Answer: B

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.7 What allows a BlackBerry device to be added as a valid BlackBerry device to a BlackBerry MVS user
DN in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment? (Choose one.)
A. Enabling KPML
B. Assigning the MVS user a 10 digit DID/DDI
C. Installing the COP file and rebooting the PBX
D. Configuring CSS for BlackBerry device-initiated calling
E. Setting the call direction for PBX-initiated calls in a MVS user class of service
Answer: C

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NO.8 An organization has a hunt group that is configured in the PBX with multiple outgoing trunks. Each
trunk is assigned a unique Caller Identification Number. Where must each Caller Identification Number be
added to ensure that PBX-initiated calling will work? (Choose one.)
A. The MVS locations field in the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. The BlackBerry MVS Client on the BlackBerry device
C. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager in the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. The BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector in the BlackBerry MVS Console
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are three functions of the SIP Line connection between the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
and the PBX? (Choose three.)
A. Registering BlackBerry MVS users with the PBX
B. Communicating Call setup messages
C. Reporting on the health of the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Exchanging KPML messages
E. Performing PBX directory lookups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 For BlackBerry devices that operate on CDMA networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers
the optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: A

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NO.11 What happens during an active BlackBerry MVS call when a failover is initiated by the BlackBerry MVS
Console? (Choose one.)
A. Active BlackBerry MVS Wi-Fi calls are preserved
B. Active BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile calls are preserved
C. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped without notification
D. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are preserved
E. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped after the notification tone
Answer: D

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NO.12 What allows a BlackBerry device to differentiate between an inbound call to the mobile number and an
inbound call to the work number? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Client is programmed to recognize calls from a specific DID that the PBX uses to
indicate an enterprise call
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server notifies the BlackBerry device user with an email message
C. An indicator isprepended to the ANI that is sent by the PBX to the BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager sends a SIP message to the BlackBerry MVS client to indicate
that a work call has been initiated
E. Calls to the mobile number use a different ring sequence
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one.)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the purpose of the line port in the BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector configuration?
(Choose one.)
A. To allow the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager to receive BlackBerry-initiated calls from the SIP Line
on the PBX
B. To allow the BlackBerry MVS to forward calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of
the BlackBerry device
C. To allow BlackBerry MVS to initiate calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of the
BlackBerry device
D. To allow BlackBerry MVS Clients to register as a BlackBerry MVS Client on the PBX using the SIP Line
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the primary function of the BlackBerry Dispatcher in the BlackBerry MVS Solution? (Choose
one.)
A. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router to the BlackBerry MVS Session
Manager.
B. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
C. It compresses and encrypts all data that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The BlackBerry
Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
D. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the media gateway, to and from the wireless network.
E. It compresses and encrypts RTP traffic that BlackBerry devices send and receive. The
BlackBerry Dispatcher sends the data through the BlackBerry Router, to and from the wireless network.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which logging level in the BlackBerry Mobile Voice System Configuration tool logs the SIP messages
between the BlackBerry MVS Server and PBX? (Choose one.)
A. Info
B. Severe
C. Warning
D. Finer
E. Finest
Answer: E

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NO.17 How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring
BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the
BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP
Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which service book is required by the BlackBerry MVS Client to function properly? (Choose one.)
A. Desktop [VoIP]
B. Desktop [MVSSIP]
C. Desktop [BBMVS]
D. Desktop [BBSIP]
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which type of database authentication is required if BlackBerry MVS is installed on a different Microsoft
Windows domain than the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Windows authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server authentication
C. Authentication set todb_owner
D. Trusted authentication
Answer: B

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NO.20 On a planning call with a customer, the Windows account requirements for the BlackBerry MVS
installation are discussed. The customer says that the BlackBerry MVS account sounds similar to the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server ESadmin account. The customer asks if this account can be used for
BlackBerry MVS. What is the appropriate response to this query? (Choose one.)
A. This account can be used since it meets the requirements of the Windows account for
BlackBerry MVS.
B. This account cannot be used at the risk of causing issues with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. The permissions appear similar but are not. TheBESadmin account cannot be used.
D. The BESadmin account must be used since the BlackBerry MVS installation sets up the connection to
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 005-002
Exam Name: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part I)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32 characters.
Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A. VARCHAR
B. CHAR
C. TEXT
D. Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Answer: B

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NO.2 Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should...
A. generally never be run manually
B. be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C. be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D. be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be read during
query execution
E. be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: ABCD

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NO.5 Which of the following actions are performed during an RPM installation of the MySQL server
package?
A. Setup a mysql user
B. Setup a mysql group
C. Initialize the data directory
D. Setup passwords for all default accounts.
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 Which of the following steps should be taken to restore an InnoDB table to a consistent state without
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A. Run the REPAIR TABLE command.
B. Dump the table with mysqldump, drop the table then re-create from the dump file.
C. Run the CHECK TABLE command.
D. Dump the table with mysqlhotcopy, drop the table then re-create with the backup file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Suppose you have a server that has been started with the --myisam-recover option. When does the
server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A. Each time the server is started.
B. Each time it encounters an error.
C. Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D. Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

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NO.9 Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database? If not,
why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = 'INFORMATION_SCHEMA'
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A. Yes.
B. No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C. No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D. No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
Answer: A

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NO.10 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by
it's own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.11 Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = 'world'
AND table_name = 'Country'
What would be the result of executing this query?
A. An error would be issued
B. A warning would be issued
C. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table Country
would be dropped from the world database
D. The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the world
database would be unaffected.
Answer: A

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NO.12 mysqldump can be instructed to include commands to drop and recreate tables before trying to create
or load data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true regarding the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It uses multiversioning to isolate transactions.
B. It is not possible for deadlocks to occur.
C. It does not isolate transactions.
D. It is possible for deadlocks to occur.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true regarding table locks?
A. They can only be released by the client holding them.
B. They can be released by other connections than the client holding them.
C. They are implicitly released when the connection is closed.
D. They are not released when the connection is closed
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for MEMORY
tables?
A. HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
B. BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators
such as = and <=>
C. BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and <=>
operators.
D. HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality operators such
as = and <=>
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes why table locking is often not desirable compared to page or row
locking?
A. Table locks can have deadlocks.
B. Table locks create concurrency issues.
C. Table locks prevent other clients from making any changes to the table until released.
D. Table locks can cause data corruption issues if more than one client tries to make changes while
locked.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true?
A. InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B. MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C. InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D. MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E. InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
F. MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Answer: ACE

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A. It can dump data only on remote servers.
B. It can dump data only on the local server.
C. It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A. It is used to cache row data in open tables
B. It holds file descriptors for open tables
C. The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D. Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E. There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F. Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open simultaneously
Answer: BEF

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NO.20 The ANALYZE TABLE command should be used...
A. When you need to find out why a query is taking a long time to execute.
B. To improve performance by updating index distribution statistics.
C. After large amounts of table data have changed.
D. To check a tables structure to see if it may have been damaged and needs repair.
Answer: BC

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NO.21 Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A. It loads data files into tables.
B. It can load files only on the server host.
C. It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D. It can load files both on the client and server host.
E. It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.22 Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
--with-charset=latin1 --with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the following
statements is/are true?
A. The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be installed on
disk.
B. The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by the
server.
C. The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened when the
server is started.
Answer: AB

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NO.23 Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A. Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B. Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C. Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D. Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
Answer: ABC

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NO.24 What are some properties of using LOCK TABLE?
A. Less work is required by the server to acquire and release locks.
B. It can only be used with the MyISAM storage engine.
C. Using LOCK TABLE sometimes decreases the amount disk reads and writes needed for a group of
statements.
D. All tables must be locked in a single statement.
E. It creates more disk activity.
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A. It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B. It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C. Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D. SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific command.
Answer: AC

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NO.26 Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by yourself?
A. They are highly optimized.
B. They are cross-platform.
C. Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely available
compilers.
D. They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E. They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Answer: ACE

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NO.27 Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A. Create and Drop databases
B. Ping the server
C. Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D. Shutdown the server.
E. Create users.
F. Display replication server status.
Answer: ACEF

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NO.28 Which of the following are requirements for MyISAM binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
D. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
Answer: CD

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NO.29 Which of the following correctly defines dirty reads, non-repeatable reads and phantom row?
A. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
B. A dirty read is a read by one transaction of its uncommitted changes.
C. A non-repeatable read occurs when a transaction performs the same retreival twice but gets a different
result each time.
D. A non-repeatable read is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
E. A phantom is a row that appears where it was not visible before.
F. A phantom is a read by one transaction of uncommitted changes made by another transaction.
Answer: ACE

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NO.30 Another user has issued the statement LOCK TABLE pets FOR WRITE
You can...
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. Update and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes how MySQL utilizes the grant table buffers?
A. The grant table buffer loads grant table information into memory for fast access.
B. The grant table buffer loads what users are currently logged in and performing queries.
C. The grant table buffer holds requests waiting to check the grant table to perform access-control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can...?
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which
types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are requirements for InnoDB binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
D. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks
and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the
server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 mysqldump can be instructed to dump...
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes the processing model for how the MySQL server handles
queries?
A. The server uses a one-tier processing model in which each storage engine optimizes and processes
each query issued against it.
B. The server uses a two-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier and a storage engine tier.
C. The server uses a three-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier, a formatting tier and a storage
engine tier.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information
in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo
information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database
directory.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When making connections to a MySQL server on a Unix platform, which of the following is true?
A. TCP/IP connections are faster than socket file connections.
B. Socket file connections are faster than TCP/IP connections.
C. TCP/IP and Socket file connections are equally as fast.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.12 Where is the data stored for a table that is defined as using the FEDERATED Storage Engine?
A. The data will always be stored on the local host.
B. The data will always be stored on a remote host.
C. The data can be stored on any host depending on the definition of the table.
D. The data will always be stored on disk.
E. The data will always be stored in memory.
F. The data will be stored according to the storage engine of the referenced table.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements correctly describes the way to enable and use shared memory
connections to the MySQL database server?
A. Shared memory connections are available by default on all platforms, but must have TCP/IP
networking disabled by using the --skip-networking option.
B. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and is enabled by default.
C. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and must be enabled by using the
--shared-memory command line option.
D. Shared memory is not a supported communication method for the MySQL database server.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following package types are provided specifically for UNIX-style OS installations?
A. Essentials
B. RPM
C. Source
D. tar-packaged binary
Answer: B

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NO.15 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true regarding the data directory on a Windows binary
installation?
A. A script needs to be run to initialize it after installation.
B. It comes pre-initialized.
C. You can choose to pre-initialize it or initialize it manually during the installation.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it's
own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which one of the following statements can be used to start MySQL 5.0 manually from the command line
on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B

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NO.1 Your sales order fact table load contains a reference to a customer _id not found in the customer
dimension table. How can you replace the customer_id with a default value and preserve the original
record using the Validation transform?
A. Select Exists in table
and Action On Failure I Send to Both , select For Pass, substitute with .
B. Select Exists in table
and Action On Failure I Send to Fail , select For Pass, substitute with .
C. Select In
option and Action On Failure I Send to Both , select For pass, substitute with .
D. Select In
option and Action On Failure I Send to Fail , select For pass, substitute with .
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where do you specify the error file to capture flat file format errors?
A. File Format Editor
B. Properties of the Data Flow
C. Server Manager Tool
D. Trace Options of the Job
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which tool must you use to manage and configure server groups?
A. Metadata Manager
B. Repository Manager
C. Server Manager
D. Web Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two steps are part of the profiling configuration process? (Choose two)
A. Use the Data Quality dashboard to review high level profiler result details
B. Use the Repository Manager to create/update/delete profiler users
C. Use the Repository Manager to create the profiler repository
D. Use the Server Manager to associate the profiler repository with the job server
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 How do you associate a repository with the Management Console?
A. Open the Server Manager and select Edit Job Server Config | Add Repository
B. Open the Server Manager and select Edit Server Group Config| Add Repository
C. Open Web Administrator and select Management |Repositories | Add
D. Open the Web Administrator and select Server Groups| Server Group Config| Add Repository
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the correct sequence of transforms to populate a Type || Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD ||)?
A. Key_Generation, Table_Comparison.History_Preserving
B. History_Preserving, Table_Comparison.Key_Generation
C. Table_Comparison.History_Preserving, Key_Generation
D. Table_Comparison.Key_Generation, History_Preserving
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three operations are available between a Local and Central Object Library?
(Choose three)
A. Add
B. Check In
C. Export
D. Get
E. Import
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which three operations can Data Integrator push down to the underlying database?
(Choose three)
A. Aggregation
B. Distinct Row
C. Ordering
D. Union
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which three methods can you use to create a local variable? (Choose three)
A. Select the Variables tab in the Smart Editor of a custom function
B. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Job workspace
C. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Work Flow workspace
D. Select Tools | Variables | Local Variables in the Data Flow workspace
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 How do you create a global variable?
A. Select Global Variables in the Job properties
B. Select Global Variables in the Work Flow properties
C. Select Tools |Variables|Global Variables in the Job workspace
D. Select Tools | Options| Project | Variables
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three types of group level permissions are available in a Secured Central Object Library?
(Choose three)
A. Full
B. Hidden
C. None
D. Read
E. Write
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which SQL statement displays when the Trace SQL Readers
option is set to Yes ?
A. SQL from the source tables
B. SQL to the target tables
C. SQL from the Lookup_ext function
D. SQL from the Table_Comparison transform
Answer: A

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NO.13 How do you create multiple instances of the same Data Flow?
A. Right-click+Replicate on the Data Flow in the Local Object Library
B. Right-click_Copy/Paste Data Flow from the Job wrorkspace
C. Right-click_Copy/Paste Data Flow in the Local Object Library
D. Right-click+Replicate Data Flow from the Job workspace
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two functions can you use in a Query? (Choose two)
A. Count
B. Exec
C. Lookup_Ext
D. Sleep
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which two changes to your Source Table requires you to re-import the metadata?
(Choose two)
A. Index changes
B. New records added
C. Table structure changes
D. Truncated table data
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 You are developing a data warehouse as part of a large development team (ten plus developers) Way
should you recommend a multi-user configuration? (Choose two)
A. Attach documentation based on object history
B. Ensure only one developer is working on a specific set of objects
C. Store table column and relationship profile data including history
D. Track the version history history of objects(audit trrail)
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 You have a source table that contains fifty columns. You need to place business rules on thirty of the
columns to check the format of the source data and filter the valid and invalid records. You also want to
analyze the column values that fail. What is the recommended method you should use?
A. Use a Case transform to create two conditions that filter the invalid records
B. Use a Map_Operation transform to map valid and invalid data rules
C. Use a Validation transform and enable validation rules on the required columns
D. Use two Query transforms with different WHERE clauses to filter the invalid records
Answer: C

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NO.18 In which three objects can you include a try/catch block.? (Choose three)
A. Data Flow
B. Job
C. Script
D. Work Flow
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.19 When you read an XML schema into the Local Object Library, which three types of XM metadata are
imported? (Choose three)
A. Attributes
B. Data Types
C. Elements
D. Styles
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.20 Which lookup caching method reduces the number of round trips to the translate table?
A. Demand_Load_Cache
B. No_Cache
C. Pre_Load _Cache D. Smart_Cache
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified - Associate Business Foundation & Integration with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
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Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (choose all that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Material master records must be maintained for consumable materials. True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 In material planning, the MRP views and the Warehouse Management views must be created.
(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 MySAP Business Suite includes? (Choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.5 The information integration component of NetWeaver include which of the following (pick
one):
A. SAP EP
B. SAP BI
C. SAP XI
D. Microsoft.Net
E. SAP PLM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following are item categories for a BOM? (Choose all that apply)
A. Stock item
B. Class item
C. Variable-size item
D. Inventory item
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system? (Choose all that
apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are available in LIS? (Choose all that apply)
A. SIS
B. PURCHIS
C. TIS
D. PMIS
E. INVCO
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.9 A purchasing group (choose all that apply):
A. Is assigned to a purchasing organization
B. Represent a individual or group of buyers
C. Are responsible for certain purchasing activities
D. Are assigned in the material master data
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following are Account Assignment categories for consumable materials? (Choose
all that apply)
A. COGS
B. Cost center
C. Project
D. Profit Center
E. Asset
F. Sales order
Answer: B,C,D,E,F

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NO.11 What of the following determines the views available when creating a material master?
(Choose the correct answer)
A. Info type
B. Item category
C. Material type
D. Movement type
Answer: C

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NO.12 The subareas of People Integration in NetWeaver include (choose all that apply):
A. Integration broker
B. Collaboration
C. Portal infrastructure
D. Multi-channel access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 The basis functions in SAP are provided by (choose the correct answer):
A. SAP XI
B. SAP EP
C. SAP Web AS
D. SAP BI
Answer: C

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NO.14 Goods receipt into stock in quality inspection can be preplanned in which of the following.
(Choose all that apply)
A. In the Material master
B. On the GR
C. On the PO
D. On the Vendor Info record
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 A GR is used for goods received from which of the following scenarios: (Choose all that apply)
A. External procurement from a vendor
B. Stock transfer
C. Transfer posting
D. From a production order
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: C_TSCM42_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
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NO.1 In your company planning strategies are used in the SAP-ECC demand management that are
based on consumption. Which of the following statements about consumption is true? (Choose
two.)
A. A consumption situation is dynamic and is always restructured with the planning run.
B. Consumption can also take place between order reservations and planned independent
requirements, depending on the strategy.
C. Consumption always takes place on the material level between the planned independent
requirements and the planned orders.
D. The consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried
out automatically when a production order is released?
A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to
be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business
function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master
for the product to be produced.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous
maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40
(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)
A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in
terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent
requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire
procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 The company that you advise does not want to manage certain value-intensive materials in
the warehouse stock. Instead, the user wishes to control material provision in such a way that these
materials are procured directly for the production and/or process order. How can you fulfill this
request? (Choose two.)
A. Using the special procurement key subcontracting in the material master for the component
B. Using the special procurement key direct procurement/external procurement in the material
master for the component
C. Using the item type non-stock item in the bill of material for the material in question
D. Using the procurement type external procurement in the material master for the component
E. Controlling the material in question as a co-product
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which one of the following scheduling types cannot be assigned as default to an order type
(production order)?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the SAP ECC system, a material is produced with the help of production orders. Though
originally used for rate-based planning only, the planning table is to be used to plan this material.
On the initial screen of the planning table, you select this material and then receive a message
informing you that you cannot use the planning table for this material.
Which one of the following reasons for this message applies?
A. The series production indicator has not been set.
B. There is no valid production version for this material.
C. There are no planned orders or production orders present.
D. There are no requirements present.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The master data for an in-house production process is to be set up in the SAP ECC system. To
do this, you should create a suitable routing that plans for five operations in an initial sequence
(10,20, 30, 40, 50). There should be an option of relocating operations 30 and 40 to a second
sequence on other work centers if there are capacity bottlenecks. What sequence type would you
use to create the second sequence in the system?
A. Substitute sequence
B. Alternative sequence
C. Parallel sequence
D. Standard sequence
Answer: B

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NO.8 The user you advise requests that you make it possible for the user to produce materials for
stock,for customer orders, projects, orders and cost centers with production orders.
Where can you make settings to ensure these options?
A. Serial number profile.
B. Settlement profile.
C. Valuation variant.
D. Production scheduling profile.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following requirements for a manufacturing plant can be supported by using
process
manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. Master recipe-based manufacturing.
B. Material requirements planning for production resources.
C. Manufacturing without orders.
D. Variable calculation of material quantities (product output, material usage).
E. Manufacturing in charge quantities.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 An enterprise based in the USA produces an end product that is used with the unit of
measure"pound" (LB). The material is now to be marketed in the EU. A prerequisite for this is that
the material can be sold with the unit kilogram (KG).
Which of the following solutions does SAP ECC offer?
A. In the basic data customizing, you create a unit of measure group that converts pounds to
kilograms. You then assign this to the material master on basic data view 1.
B. You create a new material with a reference to the original material and assign the metric unit of
measure to the new material master.
C. In the material master, you create a conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms on
basic data view 1.
D. There is no need to take any action. There is a general conversion in the central customizing of
units of measurements, so that automatic conversion of pounds to kilograms takes place.
Answer: D

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