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Exam Code: HP0-M58
Exam Name: HP (HP Software Testing Foundation 11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What does the Execution report list do.?
A. the test sets that appear in the Test Lab module, without listing their tests
B. the test instances with their testing status
C. the requirements in the Requirement module
D. the tests in the Test Plan module
Answer: B

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NO.2 A test set folder contains tests that can be assigned to cycles in the Management module. What does
this association allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Review the progress of the tests.
B. Determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects.
C. Enable test sets to be included in a baseline.
D. Determine the maximum number of test sets for a cycle.
E. Enhance reporting ability.
F. Review the responsible testers included in each cycle.
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.3 Which Quality Center module manages libraries and baselines?
A. Baseline module
B. Management module
C. Librariesmodule
D. Requirement module
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Traceability Matrix lists the number of relationships for each source requirement. Which type of
value in this matrix implies that the source requirement is not associated with enough requirements or
tests?
A. a high value
B. a low value
C. a negative value
D. a zero value
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does this icon in the Requirements module represent?
A. Requirements: Attachments
B. Requirements: Requirement Details
C. Requirements: Select Columns
D. Requirements: Send by Email
Answer: B

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NO.6 When using HP Sprinter, what enables the selection of rows of data to be sent automatically to
relevant locations in a form?
A. annotating a screen capture
B. data injection
C. macros
D. mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true?
A. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle start dates only.
B. Cycles may exist independent of one another.
C. Cycle dates cannot overlap with each other.
D. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle end dates only.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which menu provides the Document Generator option?
A. Analysis
B. Report
C. Tools
D. Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which ALM add-in provides a variety of tools to assist in the manual testing process?
A. Quality Center Connectivity
B. Quality Center System Test Remote Agent
C. Sprinter
D. ALM add-ins
Answer: C

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NO.10 When is test said to be economical?
A. Each test should have a distinct objective, such as verifying a specific function or system requirement.
B. Test Plan A test must include only the necessary steps and fields that are needed for its purpose.
C. Each iteration of the test must execute consistently.
D. A test must be appropriate for its testers and its environment.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which defect status indicates that the defect has been resolved but it is pending approval by the
testing team?
A. New
B. Fixed
C. Reopen
D. Open
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which value in the Compare Baseline tool indicates that there is a difference in the entity between the
baselines?
A. Added
B. Absent
C. Moved
D. Modified
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which option from the Test Type drop down should you select to run an Astra Load Test?
A. LR-Scenario
B. ALT-Scenario
C. VAPI-XP-Test
D. QUICKTEST_TEST
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is used to highlight problems in images attached to a step, run, actual result, or defect?
A. annotations
B. macros
C. smart defect
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which module under Testing enables you to develop and manage tests in a hierarchical tree-structure?
A. Test Lab
B. Test Plan
C. Business Components
D. Test Resources
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H23
Exam Name: HP (Sales Essentials of HP Workstations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Your DME customer requires a computing solution that provides multiple processor sockets and has
ECC memory. The solution must be able to expand as the customer s needs change. Which HP product
(s) should you recommend this customer?
A. HP Compaq 6000 Pro Series
B. HP Compaq 8000 Elite Series
C. HP Z220/z420 Workstations
D. HP Z620/Z820 Workstation
Answer: D

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NO.2 During discovery you learn that your customer frequently runs multiple applications concurrently and
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performance. Which HP workstation feature should you present as a part of the solution for this
customer.?
A. high speed and ECC Memory
B. latest high performing single core processors
C. multi-socket processor capabilities
D. high speed hard disk drivers with RAID
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which workstation on performance characteristic makes it a good fit for financial analysts and for
trading floors?
A. tool-less chassis for easy serviceability
B. multi-socket multi-processor capabilities
C. small footprint to fit in confined spaces
D. flexible configurations with easy upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your healthcare customer indicates they need PACS capability. What area they referring to?
A. Patient Administrative and care system
B. Personnel Accounting Control System
C. Picture Archiving and Communication System
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer is a small engineering firm with 15 employees. They are currently running their CAD
applications on a desktop PC that is three years old and they want to move to a more robust system. They
also anticipate growth over the next 24 months and want the new solution to be able to support this
growth.
A. HP Z220 Workstation
B. HP Compaq 8000 Elite Series
C. HP Compaq 2000 Pro Series
D. HP Compaq 6000 Pro series
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-N32
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Application Lifecycle Management Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which challenges have an impact on IT success when delivering applications with predictable
quality in a timely fashion? (Select three.)
A. dependency
B. limited access
C. visibility
D. reliability
E. focus
F. high availability
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.2 What is another name for an application that supports a business service or process using
components from two or more separate applications?
A. enterprise application
B. desktop application
C. composite application
D. commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) application
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which business challenges are relevant to requirements management? (Select three.)
A. Forty percent of project budgets are wasted due to poor requirements.
B. There is a lack of visibility and traceability throughout application lifecycle.
C. The VP of Apps needs a way to visualize the state of application quality.
D. There is no single system of record for requirements definition and management. Business
analysts
need a way to prototype my applications.
E. Development is not linked into the application lifecycle.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 What is the key business challenge that drives the need for tight and real-time control over
the application development, test, and release cycle.?
A. Businesses require up-to-date information regarding intellectual property and attrition.
B. Ongoing business events, such as M&A and creation of new lines of business, highlight the
inadequacy
of a one-time portfolio assessment or limited project management processes.
C. An agile and modern world requires modernized and fast applications.
D. Mobile computing is growing rapidly and must be managed effectively.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the key terms associated with composite applications? (Select two.)
A. Automatic maintenance
B. Shared services
C. Application sensitive storage management
D. Virtualization
E. Provider-consumer
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Why is enterprise release planning and tracking so important for today's business processes?
A. because mobile computing is growing rapidly and must be managed effectively
B. because businesses need to enforce standardization and compliance
C. because of budget constraints
D. because business initiatives cross multiple applications
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the challenges in ensuring better, faster outcomes for application delivery? (Select
three.)
A. change readiness
B. real time visibility into rapid change
C. quality
D. network performance
E. predictability
F. server power and cooling consumption
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Which IT/business challenges are relevant to development management? (Select three.)
A. Different development methodologies are needed.
B. A variety of development tools are needed.
C. Heterogeneous environments are extremely difficult to manage.
D. Application teams are distributed.
E. Mobile computing is rapidly growing and must be managed effectively.
F. Ongoing business events, such as M&A and creation of new lines of business, highlight the
inadequacy
of a one-time portfolio assessment or limited project management processes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 What are the common development methodologies currently in use? (Select three.)
A. scrum
B. ruck
C. agile
D. vigorous
E. waterfall
F. fountain
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 What are the key business and IT challenges faced by application delivery organizations with
respect to quality management? (Select three.)
A. improvement of time to market
B. disaster recovery and availability
C. difficulty in managing heterogeneous environments
D. mitigate risk
E. elimination of rework and cost across the enterprise
F. rapidly-growing cloud adoption and virtualization
Answer: C,D,E

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Exam Code: HP0-J59
Exam Name: HP (StoreOnce Solutions Advanced Service and Support)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which library emulation types can be used with the HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System to
integrate the solution in a customer environment? (Select three)
A. HP 2x8 Autoloader
B. D2D-VTL generic library
C. MSL6060 G2 series library
D. EML series library
E. D2DBS generic library
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which statement correctly describes the installation wizard of an HP StoreOnce Backup
System
when run for the first time?
A. It automatically configures the iSCSI Initiator on the target host.
B. It automatically configure the system with the default IP 192.168 1.0/ 24.
C. It automatically operates in High Availability (LACP) network mode
D. It automatically creates an iSCSI device on iSCSI models.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Backup jobs are failing to a NAS share on an HP StoreOnce D2D Backup System permissions
set. What is one way to verify access to this CIFS share?
A. Check if root user permissions have been granted to the share.
B. Verify that no Linux backup servers access the CIFS shares.
C. Check Active Directory or local permissions for the share.
D. Verify that the client system being backed up has permission to write to share.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When reloading the configuration from a saved configuration file, same information will not
be
restored since it could potentially cause data loss on the surviving D2D appliance. Which data is
not restored and needs to be entered during the recovery operations?
A. Replication slot mapping
B. iSCSI partner settings
C. TCP/IP addresses
D. SMTP and eMail settings
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer asks you to recommend an HP StoreOnce Backup System solution with these
availability features:
Redundant fans
Redundant power supplies
Dual 8 GB Fibre Channel connections
Which Hp StoreOnce Backup System model meets these requirements?
A. D2D2502i G2
B. D2D4106fc
C. D2D4306fc
D. D2D4324
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement describes the difference between deduplication technology used on an HP
VLS9200 and an HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System?
A. The VLS9200 and D2D4324 use post-processing deduplication technology.
B. VLS9200 uses HP post-processing deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP StoreOnce inline
deduplication technology.
C. VLS9200 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Accelerated Deduplication
technology.
D. VLS9200 uses HP StoreOnce Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication
technology.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-S34
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Rack and Tower Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 After configuring the bare metal HP Agentless Management, the customer notices that not all
system information is display. In addition, to system information displayed with the bare metal
method, which information can be collected when running HP Agentless Management. (Choose
Two)
A. Storage firmware
B. Network firmware
C. Power an cooling information
D. Processor data
E. Memory information
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A customer wants to build an HPC cluster and needs the highest performance and bandwidth.
What should he used?
A. Flex 10
B. 10 GB Ethernet
C. Flex Fabric
D. FDR InfiniBand
Answer: D

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NO.3 In HP Systems Insight Manager version 7 and beyond, which new tools can be used for
baselining? (Select two)
A. Track software and firmware versions
B. Manage software and firmware baselines
C. Manage hardware and software versions
D. Track hardware and software baselines
E. Track driver and firmware baselines
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Witch feature provides a customer alert to prevent a counterfiet hard drive from getting
installed in
an HP Proliant Gen8 server?
A. Drive error log NVRAM
B. Smart carrier authentication
C. Enhanced display
D. Smart array advanced pack
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are planning to install an HP DL380 Gen8 server at a customer site. The customer wants to
use the HP Agentless management functionality. Which statement is correct when implementing
this management solution?
A. Pre-failure alerts can be configured for memory and drives
B. Redundancy status alerts can be configured for the CPU and the Smart Array controller
C. Redundancy status alerts can be configured for fans and the Smart Array controller
D. Pre-failure alerts can be configured for the CPU and the Smart Array controller
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing HP insight Control for Microsoft system Center on a customer site. You want
to
be able to use System Center Configuration Manager to install HP ProLiant drivers and firmwares
using a rules based model. Which component should be installed?
A. HP Proliant Pro Management Kit
B. HP Proliant Update Catalog
C. HP Proliant OS deployment Toolkit
D. HP Proliant Agent less Management Kit
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions - Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which group in customer organizations has proved to be the strongest advocate for client
virtualization programs and should be targeted to identify the potential storage needs of a client
virtualization project?
A. CFO and Finance team
B. CIO and senior IT management
C. IT operations team
D. End Users
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer's CIO is advocating a move to client virtualization. Which storage criterion is
NOT
relevant for a successful deployment?
A. Storage needs to be tailored to client visualization to deliver an effective ROI
B. Storage needs to be high performance
C. Storage needs to be highly available to meet client needs
D. Storage needs to be in a larger datacenter
Answer: D

HP   HP2-K33   HP2-K33

NO.3 What does HP guarantee with HP 3PAR StoreServ that could help customers manage the
impact
of Microsoft Database Availability Groups?
A. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 50%
B. a reduction in storage capacity requirements by 90%
C. a doubling in storage capacity requirements
D. a doubling in server density
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your enterprise customer is planning to build a virtualized Exchange 2010 system with
VMware.
They are considering VMware vMotion to help manage workload rebalancing across multiple
systems when adding storage capacity. What are key reasons why the customer should also
consider HP 3PAR Peer Motion? (Select two.)
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion minimizes downtime through a central synchronized architecture that
provides mission critical availability.
B. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between multiple HP
StoreServ systems.
C. HP 3PAR Peer Motion uses a high performance Block Migration process that has been
optimized for HP ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between HP 3PAR StoreServ
and any other 3rd party SAN environment
E. HP 3PAR Peer Motion can be combined with HP 3PAR Thin Persistence software to reduce
storage I/O and capacity requirements.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which industry standard API mechanism for creating advanced web applications have
mainstream
web organizations like Google, Twitter, and Facebook adopted?
A. HTML
B. REST
C. SOAP
D. HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Analysts state that 50% of storage is connected to a virtual machine. What is a key implication
of
this fact for your sales campaigns?
A. It is too late to sell storage for virtualized servers to half the market.All sales campaigns should
focus on selling backup software to these clients
B. Users with traditional storage installations connected to virtual machines will be discovering the
limitations of their existing environments
C. The sales approach will be the same across the board - HP Converged Storage is the most
scalable and cost-effective platform for client virtualization
D. The only opportunity is to consider compliance needs with organizations that have already
onnected disk storage to virtual machines
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the power of HP StoreOnce deduplication and Catalyst technology?
A. It enables deduplication tasks to be distributed across the whole information protection
infrastructure including remote offices and the datacenter
B. It provides best in class deduplication in the main data center with 7x the backup performance
of the competition
C. It provides deduplication only at the application server which means application servers can be
restored rapidly
D. It works with HP Data Protector, which means it has an industry leadership position in
enterprise backup
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your customer will achieve which three principle business benefits by deploying HP StoreOnce
technology?
A. Eliminate OpEx costs, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage data growth
B. Save money, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage remote office backup
C. Reduce business risk, meet agreed business SLAs. and reduce backup costs
D. Reduce business nsk. meet compliance needs, and improve backup flexibility
Answer: C

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NO.9 Many of your customers' storage systems are growing at over 50% per year. What is the
major
data protection issue with this level of data growth rate?
A. More operators are required to perform and manage backup
B. The backup window and SLAs are tending to remain the same
C. The bandwidth of typical remote office WANs is too small
D. The backup devices are not large enoughto hold the new data
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which HP service could you recommend to a customer that has selected their HP StoreAll
system
and arranged delivery?
A. HP Storage Modernization Service
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis Service
C. HP Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
D. HP Enterprise NAS Implementation Service
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-H28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Printing and Computing Services)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which devices are covered by K2 Graphics support service line (printing)?
A. Corporate, Enterprise and Public sector HP Laserjet printers
B. HP Designjet printers
C. HP Tablets and Slates
D. HP Entry level Inkjet printers
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about HP Printing and Personal Systems Attach Services?
A. Deployment services offer business customers preconfigured hardware with custom images. The
customer should, however, expect some disruptions during installation.
B. Deployment services gets hardware installed in businesses or connected at home, ready to use.
C. Consumer usage services enhance customer experience by offering a high level of security.
D. Usage services only target the Consumer market
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do services help customers?
A. Services help customers maintain communications and trade with their customers and suppliers.
B. Services help employees be more productive and increase their value to the business.
C. Services help customers achieve their everyday business targets.
D. Services help customers configure business email on their cellular phones.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which areas do the HP Care Pack services cover for consumers?
A. Deployment, Usage, and Care
B. Configuration, Usage, and Care
C. Usage with HP Smart Friend only
D. Care services only
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which service allows the business to keep and dispose of their defective hard drive if their
security policies require it?
A. Data Protection
B. Keep Safe
C. Defective Media Retention
D. Remote Delete
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.hp.com/sbso/services/hp-defective-media-retention.pdf

NO.6 Which statement is true about HP Care Pack Services?
A. HP Care Pack services are configurable to many devices with invoicing during the contract
duration,
B. HP Care Pack Services cover care services only.
C. HP Care Pack Services cover deployment, usage, and care services in both Consumer and Business
markets.
D. HP Care Pack Services cover a wide range of accessories (e.g.. mouse, key boards) that can be
purchased with HP hardware.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-N42
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP TippingPoint Operational Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The HP approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once,
enforce everywhere, and provide which kind of responses in real time?
A. Local
B. Manual
C. Immediate
D. Automated
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does HP Fortify Software Security Center identify and eliminate risk? (Select two.)
A. By collecting information from any device to ensure you have complete enterprise security
visibility
B. By addressing advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
C. By providing dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence
D. By removing security vulnerabilities from the software
E. By preventing the introduction of risk during application development, in house or from vendors
F. By measuring security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
Answer: D,E

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/lilianschaffer1 /day-3-p2-security-12068415(slide 18)

NO.3 The HP TippingPoint Network Defense System is a complete set of security solutions that does
what? (Select two.)
A. Protects business critical applications from cyber attacks
B. Measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
C. Captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud, and manager uses and
controls
D. Addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
E. Delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security
F. Includes dynamic analytics andscalable infrastructure, as well as predictive intelligence
Answer: D,F

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Reference:http://www.realsec.com/risk2012 /predavanja/RiSK%202012,%20HP%20ES,%20Advancin
g%20the%20en terprise%20beyond%20tactical%20security.pdf(slide 21)

NO.4 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The increase in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The decline of security compliance
D. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are Enterprise security priorities? (Select two.)
A. Hardware hardening
B. Compliance achievement
C. MTTR for security incidents
D. Firewall configuration
E. Switch management
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://www.sap.com/germany/about/events/SAP-Forum-Public-Services2012 /pdfs/WS1_
Lemke.pdf(slide 4)

NO.7 Which statements are true about HP ArcSight solution architecture as a platform for
monitoring modernthreats and risks? (Select two)
A. It is augmented by services expertise and the most advanced security user community.
Protect724.
B. It captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud and manager uses and
controls.
C. It includes dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence.
D. It addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business.
E. It measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
F. It accelerates time-to-value for achieving secure applications.
G. It delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security.
Answer: A,E

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Reference:http://www.hpevents.co.za/performancetour/ag-what-you-cant-see.pdf(slide 18)

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Exam Code: HP0-J61
Exam Name: HP (Delta - Designing HP SMB Storage Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is a main benefit of HP StoreOnce deduplication?
A. It optimizes storage capacity to retain more data within a disk backup device.
B. It allows the devices that contain the data to be thinly provisioned.
C. It enables snapshot of deduplicated data to be made easily.
D. It encrypts data to prevent corruption during the backup cycle.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13218_div/13218_div.pdf (page 4,
see improve backup efficiency with data deduplication)

NO.2 A company's storage infrastructure has grown dynamically, heterogeneously, and largest in
scale. As a result, the infrastructure is more difficult to merge. The company needs to eliminate
manual, repetitive, and error-prone administrative tasks.
What should the company use to achieve this goal?
A. Thin provisioning
B. Storage tiring
C. Hierarchical storage management
D. Autonomic management
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.ts.avnet.com/uk/vendors/hp/assets/hp_p10000_3par_architecture_white_paper.pdf
(page 2, last bulleted point on the page)

NO.3 A customer plans to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage System.
They need 7 TB of usable capacity using network RAID 10.
How many HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage will they need to meet this requirement?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D

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NO.4 A storage administrator is migrating data from a third party storage system to an HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7000 Storage System. The administrator needs to ensure that certain hosts will be
managed by only specific user accounts?
What should be included in the designed solution?
A. Common provisioning groups
B. Virtual domains
C. Active Directory Integration
D. Logical volumes
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer plans to purchase an HP StoreVirtual 4330 System to use as a shared backup
repository. They need to select the storage system model that will help them maximize storage and
minimize storage and minimize costs.
Which type of devices should the HP StoreVirtual 4330 model contain?
A. 900 GB 10k drives
B. 1 TB 7.2k drives
C. 2 TB 7.2k drives
D. 3 TB 7.2k drives
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer needs to balance high availability and cost to meet various service level
agreements, depending on the application requirements.
Which storage methodology should the customer use?
A. Storage RAID
B. Storage tiering
C. Storage federation
D. Deduplication storage
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer to migrate date to a new database environment. They need to make a physical
copy of and their data that can be presented to the new environment with the highest level of
availability.
Which form of replication should the customer use?
A. Asynchronous replication
B. Backup to disk
C. Clones
D. Snapshot
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is planning to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
Storage System.
What should the customer use to migrate the data?
A. Online Import
B. Recovery Manager
C. Remote Copy
D. Peer Motion
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-3999ENW.pdf (page 26,
conclusion)

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Exam Code: HP2-B104
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design - Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Where are page volumes typically found on an analog copier?
A. on the mechanical meter or log-book inside the device
B. on the front panel of the device
C. in a log-book run by a key user in the department
D. in HP Web Jetadmin reports after running a remote discovery
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the phases a document typically goes through during its life cycle?
A. capture, edit, store, deliver
B. capture, manage, store, deliver
C. capture, merge, deliver, store
D. create, copy, distribute, discard
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note: *Organizations of all types are facing an overwhelming amount of paper and electronic
information. HP Capture and Route makes it easy to manage, update, and store this
information-accurately and efficiently.

NO.3 What is an onsite discovery?
A. a comprehensive device fleet assessment made through the network
B. a comprehensive inventory and audit of the entire peripheral device fleet
C. a comprehensive inventory of the network printer fleet
D. the process of asking customers to provide information about their current output environment
Answer: D

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Explanation:
HP arrives on-site to observe the business process in action. HP will not interrupt the process, but
will actively document the steps of the process as they occur. During the on-site visit, HP will also
conduct interviews or workshops with select end users to more thoroughly detail the workflow and
to better understand an end user's roles and thoughts regarding the process.
Reference: HP Workflow Discovery

NO.4 What are possible pitfalls of collecting device data during a remote discovery? (Select three.)
A. SNMP is disabled at the devices
B. SNMP is blocked/filtered in routers/switches
C. most devices are in sleep mode
D. most devices are switched off
E. the printer port 9100 is disabled
F. the printer only transfers information through PCL and PostScript
Answer: B,D,E

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Explanation:
E:Features added in the release of HP Web Jetadmin 7.6 include:
Ability to send a real test file (of user's choice) over port 9100 instead of internal test page via SNMP
Incorrect: Not C; Devices in sleep mode would wake up during a remote discovery.

NO.5 What is an advantage of using the remote discovery tool?
A. environmental data is easily collected
B. analogue devices are typically best discovered using SNMP-based software tools
C. you are able to collect data easily from locally-connected devices
D. there is very fast setup and quick availability of results
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where can you find most of the attributes of and information about a device?
A. from the user closest to the respective device
B. on the device's front panel
C. on the product sticker on the back of the device
D. on the device configuration page
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the four steps in the Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview?
A. Search, Assess, Sell, Service
B. Qualify, Assess, Analyze, Design
C. Qualify, Assess, Discover, Design
D. Interview, Discover, Define, Design
Answer: C

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NO.8 With regard to the assessment approach, which steps should come before measures? (Select
two.)
A. set the objective
B. define the scope
C. translate findings
D. collect data about tool performance
E. identify resources
Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
Note:
*We kick off the assessment process by reviewing basic facts about your imaging and printing
infrastructure-including the number and location of devices and their current usage, and the
software, operating systems, and networks that are involved. We also work to better understand
your business, your prioritized security challenges, and how you currently handle document and
data protection.
*Security is among six focus areas within the HP Imaging and Printing Assessment Services program,
which also focuses on lowering environmental impact, improving workflow, optimizing usage,
efficiently managing environments , and helping saveenergy and costs. We can conduct multiple
assessments at once or spread them outover time, and strive to minimize demands on your
employeesand IT systems.

NO.9 What are the key elements of an improve workflow approach? (Select two.)
A. create and capture
B. capture and control
C. capture and secure
D. monitor and deliver
E. process and deliver
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 What typically happens if an organization focuses only on reducing cost-per-page (CPP)?
A. the overall printing costs will be reduced
B. the TCO can increase
C. the CPP cannot be reduced without reducing the TCO
D. the total costs stay the same, but other factors automatically increase
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note:
*Total cost of ownership (TCO)
*Traditionally, print procurement decisions have been based purely on the cost of the hardware,
maintenance or just the CPP , which is largely characterised by hardware, maintenance and
consumable costs. However, this is an incomplete way of assessing print costs.
It does not take into account the ongoing efficiency of the device throughout its lifetime and the
direct impact on the bottom line costs. Furthermore the impact of your printing and imaging
network on the wider issue of productivity should also be considered.
Studies by Gartner, Inc. show that nearly 80 percent of total IT product costs occur after the
purchase of the product, and that nearly half of these costs lie outside the IT department's budget.

NO.11 Into which four information sub-sets is device discovery data commonly divided?
A. connectivity, device, site integration, and usage information
B. printer, copier, fax, and scanner information
C. device, connectivity,management, and site integration information
D. infrastructure, management, workflow, and environment information
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement is true about calculating/estimating monthly page volumes for future
recommendation?
A. monthly page volumes can be roughly estimated and then verified during the first three months
after the new devices roll out
B. Monthly page volumes must be traceable and justifiable
C. monthly page volume must be defined based on continuous monitoring
D. monthly page volumes are less important than total engine count, so they can be neglected
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-361
Exam Name: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 319 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.3 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.4 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.7 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.8 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.9 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.11 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.12 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.13 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.14 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.16 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.17 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.19 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.20 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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