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Exam Code: HP2-T14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers Rev 8.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 .Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX
3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage
arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B

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NO.3 .For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A

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NO.4 .The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed through iLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B

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NO.6 .What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire
drivers and ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the
Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C

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NO.8 .You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed. Which
offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D

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NO.9 .After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer.
Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the
documented fix or fixes were. What else should you provide as part of the HP
Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy of SmartStart
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 .What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-D06
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What must be done in order to configure Virtual Connect and enclosure bay IP addressing (EBIPA)
correctly? (Select two.)
A. The Onboard Administrator and all Virtual Connect modules must be in the same IP subnet.
B. The Onboard Administrator must be in an IP subnet different from that where all Virtual Connect
modules
reside.
C. Virtual Connect Ethernet modules and Virtual Connect Fibre Channel modules must be in different IP
subnets.
D. The Onboard Administrator IP address must be set properly before changing the IP addresses of the
Virtual Connect modules.
E. The IP addresses of the Virtual Connect modules must be set properly before changing the Onboard
Administrator IP address.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 A customer has a Central Management Server (CMS) running Insight Manager 7. What must be done
to proceed with the installation of HP Insight Dynamics - VSE?
A. Upgrade to Rapid Deployment Pack 3.7 or later.
B. Install Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM).
C. Upgrade the server to HP Systems Insight Manager 5.3 or later.
D. Nothing more needs to be done. The installation can proceed without modification.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many c-class enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
1.30 or later?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 400
D. 800
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many c-class enclosures are manageable by one Virtual Connect domain when running HP Virtual
Connect Enterprise Manager 1.30 or later?
A.1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which key components are used to build a Virtual Connect infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Virtual Connect Supervisor
B. Virtual Connect Ethernet modules
C. Virtual Connect Pass Thru modules
D. Virtual Connect Manager
E. Virtual Connect Switch Manager
F. Virtual Connect Fibre Channel modules
Answer: BDF

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NO.6 Which access methods are provided by HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A. HP Server Management GUI
B. Server Management and Scripting Utility
C. command line interface for local or serial access
D. browser-based GUI
E. command line interface for network access
Answer: DE

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NO.7 What must you do to prepare the ports before stacking Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules?
A. You must define the root port.
B. You must designate a port as a stacking port.
C. You must define upstream and downstream neighbors.
D. You do not need to do anything because configuration is automatic.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Answer:

NO.9 Answer:

NO.10 Which statement is true about full virtualization?
A. It can be implemented completely only by using virtualization software.
B. It can be implemented only by using virtualization software with HP Integrity VT processor
assistance.C.It can be implemented completely either with virtualization software or with processor
virtualization assistance (AMD-V, Intel VT-x).
D. It is implemented in most operating systems at a basic level and special features require virtualization
software assistance.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K10
Exam Name: HP (Supporting MSL5000/6000 Series Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is an architectural requirement for adaptive tape speed (ATS)?
A. cache buffer
B. stepper motor
C. start/stop mode
D. variable head rotation
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which reference document is recommended to locate the most recent supported configurations?
A. User Guide
B. QuickSpecs
C. Installation Guide
D. EBS Compatibility Matrix
Answer: D

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NO.3 A tape library is equipped with a low-voltage differential (LVD) SCSI interface. What happens if this
library is connected to a high-voltage differential (HVD) host bus adapter?
A. The SCSI bus becomes inoperative.
B. The SCSI interface changes to HVD mode.
C. The speed of the SCSI bus degrades to LVD.
D. The host bus adapter switches to LVD mode.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum bandwidth of a wide Ultra SCSI bus with 16 possible SCSI IDs?
A. 160 MB/s and an LVD interface
B. 80 MB/s and an SE or LVD interface
C. 40 MB/s and an SE or HVD (high-voltage differential) interface
D. 20 MB/s and an SE (single ended) or LVD (low-voltage differential) interface
Answer: C

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NO.5 What happens to the devices when a high-voltage differential tape device is connectedwith a
single-ended host bus adapter (HBA)?
A. They do not function together and you may damage them.
B. They do not function together unless you use active termination.
C. They function correctly after you set up the compatibility mode in the HBA.
D. They function correctly if you set up unique SCSI IDs and proper termination.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Identify the correct statement about logical unit numbers (LUNs) in SCSI.
A. LUNs are virtual devices used for administration.
B. LUNs are used to address physical or logical devices behind a SCSI ID.
C. The number of LUNs available on a SCSI bus depends on the signaling type of the bus.
D. LUNs are not used to address devices when doing a SCSI I/O over a Fibre Channel fabric.
Answer: B

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NO.7 .What is the maximum bandwidth of a wide Ultra 2 SCSI bus with 16 possible SCSI IDs?
A. 160 MB/s and an LVD interface
B. 80 MB/s and an SE or LVD interface
C. 40 MB/s and an SE or HVD (high-voltage differential) interface
D. 20 MB/s and an SE (single ended) or LVD (low-voltage differential) interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 The MSL6000 Series Tape Library has an Ultra3 SCSI interface. What is the standard bandwidth?
A. 40 MB/s
B. 80 MB/s
C. 160 MB/s
D. 320 MB/s
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why would you use a Network Storage Router E1200-160 instead of an E1200?
A. if you use Ultrium 960 drives
B. if you need more SCSI ports
C. if you need more Fibre Channel ports
D. if you need high-voltage differential instead of low-voltage differential SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a characteristic of SCSI bus termination?
A. optional
B. only required for low-voltage differential SCSI
C. required with one terminator for each device on the bus
D. required with two terminators, one at each end of the bus
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T17
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Proliant ML/DL/SL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.)
A.Intel single core processors
B.AMD dual core processors
C.AMD quad core processors
D.Intel dual core processors
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem?
A.Sun Solaris
B.Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 Enterprise Edition
C.Novell NetWare 6.5
D.Novell SLES 10
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which RAID level does Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) employ to enhance performance,
reliability and availability?
A.RAID 1+0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6+0
D.RAID 5+0
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series
(Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.)
A.chipset
B.PCI-e cards
C.hard drives
D.CPU
E.fans
Answer: AD

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NO.5 A customer has an HP ProLiant G6 server, which meets the minimum requirements of 4 disks. They
have purchased the Smart Array Advanced Pack. The customer complains that RAID 6 is not displayed
as an option in ORCA.
What must be done to correct the problem?
A.The license key must be entered in RBSU.
B.The license key must be activated over the Internet.
C.The license key must be entered in ORCA.
D.The license key must be entered in iLO RBSU.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which key functions are under the control of the new ProLiant OnBoard Administrator found in every
ProLiant G6 server? (Select two.)
A.power and thermal optimization
B.automated firmware upgrade
C.extended health monitoring
D.TPM module management
Answer: AC

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NO.7 For the Intel x5570 Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x"
preceding the processor model number indicate?
A.extreme performance
B.lower wattage
C.turbo boost performance
D.high performance/wattage
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors?
A.Extreme Digital (xD)
B.Secure Digital (SD)
C.Compact Flash (CF)
D.PCI-express (PCIe)
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is required to support each installed HP 10Gb network adapter in a ProLiant server?
A.dedicated 2GB RAM
B.quad-core CPU
C.QuickPath architecture
D.internal PCI-X 2.0
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which capability is a key improvement in HP ProLiant G6 servers using Dynamic Power Management?
A.ability to spin down idle disk drives
B.ability to put CPU sockets to sleep and wake up real time
C.ability to power down unused PCI-e slots
D.ability to put CPU cores to sleep and wake up real time
Answer: D

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NO.11 On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located?
A.processor socket
B.processor core
C.HyperTransport Bus
D.Front Side Bus
Answer: B

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NO.12 A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive
size presented to the operating system?
A.292GB
B.438GB
C.584GB
D.730GB
Answer: B

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NO.13 What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.)
A.firmware version
B.OEM hard drive vendor
C.RAID stripe size
D.Hardware Error Logs
E.Smart Array driver version
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 In which log are Array POST errors recorded?
A.Windows Event Log
B.Integrated Management Log
C.IPMI Log
D.Onboard Administrator Log
Answer: B

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NO.15 How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server.?
A.2 channels
B.3 channels
C.4 channels
D.6 channels
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y28
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve ASE Mobility 2010 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Match each security technology with its description.
Answer:

NO.2 What information is required to create license keys for PCM+ and its plug-ins? (Select two.)
A. Registration ID
B. PCM+ Update ID
C. Hardware ID
D. Serial Number for PCM+
Answer: AC

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NO.3 You are assisting a customer who needs to purchase licenses to use Network Immunity Manager (NIM)
after the NIM trial period has expired. How many NIM licenses does the customer require?
A. one for each PCM+ device license
B. one for each wireless device that supports NIM
C. one for each ProCurve switch that supports Virus Throttling
D. one for each switch or access point
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on this network. You have not performed any
additional configuration. How many subnets will be displayed in the navigation tree when you log in to
PCM+ for the first time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on the network shown in the exhibit. You have
not performed any additional configuration. Which device(s) will be included in the network map when you
log in to PCM+ for the first time?
A. switch B only
B. switch C only
C. switch D only
D. server A and switch B
E. switches B, C, and D
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing PCM+, Network Immunity Manager (NIM), and Identity Driven Manager (IDM) for
evaluation at a customer site. When must a license be added to the PCM+ installation? (Select two.)
A. when the customer plans to use IDM immediately after installation
B. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage wireless and wired devices
C. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage more than 350 devices
D. when the customer plans to continue using PCM+ after the 60-day trial period
E. when the customer plans to use NIM immediately after installation
Answer: CD

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NO.7 You must troubleshoot a PCM+ installation at a customer site. Which issue could indicate a mismatch
between the SNMP read community configured on PCM+ and that configured on a device?
A. PCM+ cannot collect traffic statistics.
B. PCM+ cannot scan the device configuration.
C. PCM+ cannot discover the device.
D. PCM+ cannot change the device's configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which PCM+ feature enables Network Immunity Manager (NIM) to detect the anomalous or
threatening behavior of a client on the network?
A. Identity Manager
B. Policy Management
C. Agent Manager
D. Traffic Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
What must you do to enable the AP named "Confidential" to function properly in this mobility solution?
A. Enable the radio.
B. Configure a management IP address.
C. Synchronize the configuration.
D. Upgrade the firmware.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
The HP ProCurve 5406zl switch labeled as Managed device?has experienced a PCM+ Event that must
be sent as a trap. If PCM+ and the devices are configured correctly, which device will receive the trap?
A. PCM+ server
B. Remote Agent for Location 1
C. Remote Agent for Location 2
D. Intrusion Prevention System at Location 2
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.3 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.5 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E34
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Contract Specialis)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer buys a DL380 asking for three years coverage and 13¡Á5 support availability. Which HP
service solution should you offer?
A. Flexible HP Care Pack
B. Fixed HP Care Pack
C. HP Break-fix Service Contract
D. HP Service Contract
Answer: B

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NO.2 What identifies a customer as needing an HP Support Contract at the point of sale?
A. contract value less than $10k
B. common service levels
C. requirement of more than three service levels
D. common expiry date
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which service does HP offer that addresses a customer ¯ s ava il ab ilit y and ptime needs?
A. HP Reactive Hardware and Software Break-fix Services
B. HP Proactive Mission Critical Support Services
C. HP Reactive 24¡Á7 Systems Support Services
D. HP Installation and Configuration Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which service offers a customer the ability to manage their IT operational costs and system
performance.?
A. HP Hardware and Software Break-fix
B. HP Implementation and Commissioning
C. HP Installation and Site Assessment
D. HP Care Pack and Account Management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which action should you take with a customer during the renewal phase of an HP Service Contract?
A. Review other vendor ¯ s con tr ac t s .
B. Review all equipment over 5 year old
C. Review all new and existing hardware
D. Review third-party vendors ¯ equ i p m en t ove r 5 yea r s o l d
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-T18
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ProLiant Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Solid state storage is an emerging technology for disk drives. The latest drive designs meet the capacity,
performance, and reliability requirements of a ProLiant server environment. Which ProLiant G6 server
series features solid state drives?
A. ProLiant BL G6 servers
B. ProLiant DL G6 servers
C. ProLiant ML G6 servers
D. ProLiant SL G6 servers
Answer: A

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NO.2 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that names the HP portfolio that helps customers gain control of their IT
environment by managing their applications.
Answer:

NO.3 Which HP server blade is designed specifically to be the backbone of a virtualization
infrastructure?
A. BL495c G6
B. BL685c G6
C. BL860c
D. BL2x220c G5
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the key pillars where HP applies its research and development resources? (Select three.)
A. advanced training and education
B. power and cooling efficiency
C. strong partnerships
D. new technology development
E. business production processes
F. insight into solving customer problems
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Which HP technology simplifies setup, health monitoring, power and thermal control, and remote
administration of ProLiant ML, DL, and BL servers?
A. Dynamic Power Capping
B. ProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. Virtual Control
D. Thermal Logic
Answer: B

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Your customer is transforming their existing data center because the dynamic nature of their business
requires that they respond rapidly to market changes. They want faster deployment and serviceability of
their servers. Which HP ProLiant server solution should you propose for this customer?
Answer:

NO.7 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that names the HP portfolio that helps customers centralize and target
business intelligence for a competitive advantage.
Answer:

NO.8 What are the primary business challenges facing companies in today's economy? (Select two.)
A. cloud computing solution development
B. increased data generation
C. service level agreement management
D. high energy costs
E. customer-centric revenue growth
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Your financial services customer is concerned about the security of their electronic transactions.
They have asked you to recommend a hardware-based security technology that will enable them to store
passwords and encryption keys. What should you recommend for this customer?
A. aProLiant ML150 G6 with Turbo Boost Technology
B. aProLiant DL160 G6 with HP SIM and WebIM Agents
C. aProLiant DL370 G6 with the TPM option
D. aProLiant BL685c G6 with Flex-10 support
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which HP service allows customers to buy just the targeted services they need, when they need them?
A. Critical Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Proactive Select
D. Care Pack Extended Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.11 HOTSPOT
You are proposing a solution for a customer who wants to maximize the amount of features that they can
pack into the limited space in their data center. They intend to run Microsoft clusters with a SAN
environment, but have only three-phase power to the facility. Which ProLiant solution should you propose
for this customer?
Answer:

NO.12 DRAG DROP
Match the type of clustering solution with its description.
NOTICE Scroll down to see all available items.
Answer:

NO.13 Which business trend puts increasing pressure on the CIO to be measured in terms of overall business
outcomes?
A. the paradigm shift to an emphasis on the quantity of the content
B. an understanding of how the world economic climate affects the CIO's role
C. the view that IT powers the business
D. a focus on measurable business results
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which component of ProLiant ML150 Series G6 servers has self-executing software consisting of
drivers that help with server deployment?
A. Insight Foundation Suite forProLiant
B. Insight Management WBEM Providers
C. Software Smart Components
D. SmartStart
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which type of customers face challenges that are addressed by HP BladeSystems?
A. startup businesses without dedicated IT staff
B. new customers implementing their first SAN storage arrays
C. customers in emerging business markets with new rack servers
D. enterprise customers looking to postponemigrating their data centers
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which component of HP Insight Dynamics automates the process of moving drivers, data, applications,
and operating systems from a physical machine to a virtual machine?
A. Virtual Machine Management Pack
B. Insight Server Migration
C. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D. Insight Orchestration
Answer: B

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NO.17 The CIO priorities categorized in the exhibit capture an understanding of current business priority
trends. What can you accomplish by focusing on these trends?
A. By becoming familiar with the customer's daily operation process, you can avoid problems when
defining IT outcomes.
B. By learning to measure success in IT statistics, you can pinpoint areas of focus to deliver added value.
C. By understanding the customer's most desired business outcomes, you can tailor a solution to fit a
specific need.
D. By focusing on the customer's service-level agreements, you can establish expectations regarding
ongoing IT projects.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP server blade is designed for SMB customers and small business sites?
A. ProLiant BL2x220c
B. ProLiant BL260c
C. ProLiant BL685c
D. Integrity BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which statement regarding ProLiant iVirtualization is true?
A. VMwareESXi is supported on ProLiant SL G6 series servers.
B. ParallelsVirtuozzo Containers ship standard on ProLiant server blades.
C. Applications must be installed onProLiant G6 SD flash memory devices.
D. Citrix or VMware is installed on a USB key or SD card inside the server.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which customer pain points can be relieved through virtualization? (Select two.)
A. data vulnerability
B. low system utilization
C. high IT operational costs
D. processing power demands
E. resource-intensive applications
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP3-025
Exam Name: HP (HP Laserjet 9000 Series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are possible causes of the LaserJet 9000 printing blank pages? Select TWO.
A.no developing bias
B.defective fuser
C.no cartridge ground
D.defective laser shutter
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 What action should be taken when critical error messages are encountered on the control panel ¯
A.perform a cold reset
B.print an event log
C.cycle printer power
D.perform an engine test
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the maximum stack height in the accumulator of the 3000-sheet stapler/stacker?
A.2.5 mm
B.no limit
C.5.5 mm
D.5.5 cm
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are troubleshooting a media-handling problem after a 66.xy.zz error code appears on the control
panel.What does the 66 indicate?
A.operating error
B.paper path jam
C.hardware malfunction
D.device type
Answer: D

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NO.5 If the Jetdirect functionality fails for the HP LaserJet 9050dn, you must ________ .
A.replace the Jetdirect ElO device
B.cycle power to reset the device
C.replace the formatter
D.download new firmware
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C11
Exam Name: HP (HP Scanjet N9120)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the base warranty offered with the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. 1-1-1
B. 2-1-1
C. 3-3-1
D. 3-3-3
Answer: A

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NO.3 What types of organization are potential customers for the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. ones that scan slides and negatives
B. ones that digitize large format images
C. ones that digitize files and forms
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.7 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.8 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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NO.9 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.11 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.12 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.14 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.15 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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