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Exam Code: CTAL-TM_Syll2012
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements describing the consequences of specifying test conditions
at a detailed level is NOT true?
K2 1 credit
A. In an environment where the test basis is continuously changing, it is recommended to specify
test conditions at a detailed level in order to achieve a better maintainability
B. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can be effective when no formal
requirements or other development work products are available
C. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can require the implementation of an
adequate level of formality across the team
D. For system testing, the specification of test conditions at a detailed level, carried out early in the
project as soon as the test basis is established, can contribute to defect prevention
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following are the requirements identified as "critical":
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the
available credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the
"select" and "purchase" pages going back to the "browse" page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as "critical":
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than
10 sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
-a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
-a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
-a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional
off-theshelf systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR
(Interactive Voice Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that
you have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been
unsystematic and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall
integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate
this risk.
Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform
all of them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and
then a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test
and an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to
get the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the
following test conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles
from the user
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.5 The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at
least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: "C" (critical defect) and "NC" (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
K2 1 credit
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the
defect tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the
defect tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test
condition EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11 The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed
to get the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from
the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user
Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the
requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.
Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the
REQSEL-4 requirement?
K3 2 credits
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are
displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles"
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
Answer: C

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NO.7 Assume you are the Test Manager for a new software release of an e-commerce application.
The server farm consists of six servers providing different capabilities. Each capability is provided
through a set of web services.
The requirements specification document contains several SLAs
(Service Level Agreements) like the following:
SLA-001: 99.5 percent of all transactions shall have a response time less than five seconds under a
load of up-to 5000 concurrent users
The main objective is to assure that all the SLAs specified in the requirements specification
document will be met before system release. You decide to apply a risk-based testing strategy and
an early risk analysis confirms that performance is high risk. You can count on a well-written
requirements specification and on a model of the system behavior under various load levels
produced by the system architect.
Which of the following test activities would you expect to be the less important ones to achieve the
test objectives in this scenario?
K4 3 credits
A. Perform unit performance testing for each single web service
B. Monitor the SLAs after the system has been released into the production environment
C. Perform system performance testing, consisting of several performance testing sessions, to verify
if all the SLAs have been met
D. Perform static performance testing by reviewing the architectural model of the system under
various load levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as "lessons learned"?
K2 1 credit
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service
desk team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and
problems of future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software
product released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-111
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.3 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.7 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.9 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.10 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.11 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.12 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.14 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: MSC-241
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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NO.3 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.7 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.9 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.10 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

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NO.1 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the
map file can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/ 9.3 /index.cfm?TopicName=Publishing_optimized_map_ser
vices

NO.2 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The
output feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.3 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and
represent features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the
difference of their locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed
at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly
align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate
space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to
the data1
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type
supports this function?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://edndoc.esri.com/arcobjects/ 8.3 /TechnicalDocuments/Network/ArcGISNetworkModel/ArcGIS
Network.htm (topic 2.1.2, see the first image)

NO.5 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water
pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the
most likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace
task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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Reference: http://ssl.tamu.edu/courses/frsc652 /lab/gdbase_lab_exercises.pdf (page 3, step 9)

NO.6 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the
exhibit using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys,
respectively. However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the
drop-down list of candidate keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.7 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less
negative (e.g.from -45 to -28). which way does the data move?'
A.north
B.south
C.east
D.west
Answer: B

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NO.8 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a
point feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the
feature class seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far
from the high edge values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears
to be overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.10 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: S90-18A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
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NO.1 Service A sends a message to Service B which reads the values in the message header to determine
whether to forward the message to Service C or Service D. Because of recent attacks on Services C and
D, it has been decided to protect the body content of messages using some form of encryption. However,
certain restrictions within the design of Service B will not permit it to be changed to support the encryption
and decryption of messages. Only Services A, C and D can support message encryption and decryption.
Which of the following approaches fulfill these security requirements without changing the role of Service
B?
A. Transport-layer security is implemented between all services.
B. Message-layer security is implemented between all services.
C. Service B is removed. Instead, the routing logic is added to Service A.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.7 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 Digital signatures use encryption and hashing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.14 A service contract includes a security policy that exposes specific details of the service's underlying
implementation. This is an example of the application of which service-orientation principle?
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Loose Coupling
C. Standardized Service Contract
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
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Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about the failover system mechanism?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A.A failover system can only be used for legacy batch programs.
B.A failover system cannot span over more than one geographical region.
C.A failover system can be used to make redundant implementations of the same cloud service.
D.A failover system can be used to avoid introducing cloud services as single points of failure.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 A hypervisor can independently manage and monitor the virtualization of multiple virtual servers, and is
therefore associated with the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms helps enable on-demand usage by allowing cloud
services to be configured to support higher usage thresholds automatically, and within pre-defined
parameters?
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replication
Answer: B

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NO.4 A virtual server is a form of ____________________ software that emulates a(n)
____________________ computer.
Select the correct answer.
A.virtual monitoring, on-premise
B.virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C.virtualization, physical
D.virtualization, logical
Answer: C

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NO.5 A failover system can increase ___________________and ___________________ by using
_______________ technology.?
Select the correct answer.
A.resources, usage thresholds, legacy
B.reliability, availability, clustering
C.flexibility, integrity, real-time
D.confidentiality, responsiveness, cloud
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is an IT resource that can be provided in a ready-made environment?
Select the correct answer.
A.database
B.development tool
C.virtual server
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following IT resources are examples of multi-device brokers?
Select the correct answer.
A.An XML gateway that performs runtime transformation of messaging protocols.
B.A cloud storage gateway that performs runtime transformation of cloud storage device protocols.
C.A middleware product that performs runtime transformation of XML schemas.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A ___________________ is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an
alternative to caching the data in memory.
Select the correct answer.
A.resource replicator
B.state management database
C.failover system
D.multi-device broker
Answer: B

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NO.9 A ___________________ is an IT resource that contains mapping logic capable of performing runtime
transformation to enable communication between a cloud service and different types of cloud service
consumers.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: D

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NO.10 Assuming a cloud service is configured to support on-demand usage, which of the following cloud
computing mechanisms would the cloud provider need to use in order to keep track of what to charge
cloud consumers?
Select the correct answer.
A.on-demand usage listener
B.multi-device broker
C.resource billing replicator
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A cloud service can be hosted by a physical server or a virtual server. When using the failover system
mechanism, the same cloud service cannot be hosted by more than one physical server.
Select the correct answer.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms can exist as a service agent that monitors and
keeps track of communication between cloud service consumers and cloud services for load balancing
purposes?
Select the correct answer.
A.multi-device broker
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.resource replicator
D.automated scaling listener
Answer: D

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NO.13 __________________ represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT
resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B.Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C.Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D.None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The ____________________ is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT
resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes.
Select the correct answer.
A.automated scaling listener
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replicator
Answer: B

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NO.15 A ____________________ is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed
IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HIO-301
Exam Name: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.2 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

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NO.3 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

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NO.4 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.5 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.6 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.7 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.8 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.9 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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NO.10 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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NO.11 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.12 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.13 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.14 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.16 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.17 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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NO.18 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.19 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

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NO.20 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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